A customer has their own router doing NAT. WAN is set to obtain auto. LAN is set to 192.168.1.1.
Time Warner puts in a new modem, in NAT mode. The WAN of the customer router is now 192.168.0.1 . (the previous was in bridge so the WAN of the customer router was a public 67.xxx.xxx.xxx address)
My question is, can the WAN being 192.168.0.1 and the LAN being 192.168.1.1 cause issues? What is the 'minimum seperation' those two network need to be ok?
Not looking for a solution here, I already had Time Warner re-config their equipment to bridge. Just looking for a bit of theory here.
Thanks!!